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$\gdef\uint{\overline{\int}}$ $\gdef\lint{\underline{\int}}$
To deal with possibly non-integrable functions, we need to define 'upper Lebesgue integral' and 'lower Lebesgue integral', which works for non-integrable functions $$ \overline{\int} f(x) = \inf \{ \int g(x), \text{g absolutely integrable, and $g(x)>f(x)$} \} $$ similarly for lower Lebesgue integral. By monotonicity of integral, we always have upper integral greater than lower integral.
Lemma 8.3.6 says, if a function $f: \R^n \to \R$ satisfies $\uint f = \lint f$, then $f$ is absolutely integrable. To prove it, we create a sequence that approximate $f$ from above, $\overline f_n$ and a sequence that approximate $f$ from below $\underline f_n$, take their limit to get $F_+, F_-$ with $F_+ \geq F_-$. Since $\int F_+ = \uint f = \lint f = \int F_-$, we have $\int F_+ - F_- = 0$, since $F_+ -F_-\geq 0$, we have $F_+ = F_-$ a.e., since $F_+ \geq f \geq F_-$, thus $f = F_+$ a.e., thus measurable and absolutely integrable.
Let $f(x,y): \R^2 \to \R$ be an absolutely integrable function, then there exists integrable function $F(x)$ and $G(y)$, such that for a.e $x$, we have $F(x) = \int f(x,y) dy$ and for a.e $y$, $G(y) = \int f(x,y) dx$, and $$ \int f(x,y) dx dy = \int F(x) dx = \int G(y) dy $$
Pf: We only consider the statement about $F(x)$.
$$ 4N^2 - \lint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx = \uint (\uint 1_{E^c}(x,y) dy) dx \leq m(E^c) = 4N^2 - m(E) $$ So, $$ \lint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq m(E) $$ In particular, $$\lint (\uint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq \lint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq m(E) \geq \uint (\uint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq \lint (\uint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx $$ Hence $F_+(x) = \uint 1_E(x,y) dy$ is integrable. Similarly $$ \lint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq m(E) \geq \uint (\uint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq \uint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx \geq \lint (\lint 1_E(x,y) dy )dx $$ thus $F_- (x) = \lint 1_E(x,y) dy$ is integrable. And, we have $$ \int F_+(x) dx = \int F_- (x) dx $$ hence $F_+(x) = F_-(x)$ for almost all $x$. Thus, for a.e. $x$, we have $\uint f(x,y) dy = \lint f(x,y) dy$, thus $\int f(x,y) dy$ exists for a.e. x.